Showing posts with label Derivation. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Derivation. Show all posts

Wednesday, July 2, 2014

How to Derive Relativistic Momentum Without Magically Divining the Answer

What's that you say?  "Wow, the Furlong, that was a tasty, if somewhat rushed, derivation that nobody asked for.  Please give me another!"

Ok, I will, though I do apologize if my last derivation may have been difficult to follow.  My time is limited and working with LaTeX in Blogger is about as fun as grinding with a porcupine.  I am still getting used to it, so please, bear with me.

Let's back track somewhat and talk a little about an aspect of Special Relativity, that frankly, I find much cooler than Lorentz Contraction and Time Dilation: Relativistic Momentum and Energy.  In Newtonian Mechanics, for those who don't know, we have momentum, p:

\begin{equation}
p = \int \! F \ \mathrm{d}t = mv
\end{equation}

where F is the net force, m is mass, and v is velocity.

And kinetic energy, T:

\begin{equation}
T = \int \! F \cdot \ \mathrm{d}s = \frac{mv^2}{2}
\end{equation}

where s is the path.

In SR, (1) is replaced by
\begin{equation}
p = \mathrm{MAAAGIC} = mv\gamma
\end{equation}

and (2) is replaced by
\begin{equation}
T^2 = \mathrm{ME \> LUCKY \> CHARMS!} = m^2c^4 + p^2c^2
\end{equation}

where $\gamma=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}$ is the Lorentz factor.

You'll notice that the intermediate steps involve mystical invocations and supplications to supernatural beings (the kind you find on cereal boxes).  For all intents and purposes, this is how derivation of relativistic momentum and energy is presented in all explanations I have encountered.

An extremely common method used to describe this, which I confess, I have never taken the time to truly appreciate, is one involving a glancing, elastic, collision between two particles.  First, they show that if we assume $p=mv$ momentum, momentum is not conserved.  Then, they skip the most important step and guess that p satisfies (3) and then show that under that arbitrary assumption, that momentum will be conserved.  That's right!  In order to show people how to derive relativistic momentum, they don't actually derive it, but magically guess that it must take that form.

Please permit me to take a moment to tell you how awful, and completely unhelpful this type of pedagogical strategy is.  As physicists, it is in our best interest to teach upcoming physicists not just how to remember equations, but how to apply sound physical reasoning to arrive at those results, in hopes that some day, they will be able to apply those same vital skills to arrive at novel results.  How is this going to help them do that?

The sad thing is, this kind of strategy is rampant in mathematically oriented subjects.  Too often, especially in upper level courses, new concepts are presented without precedent or even the barest motivation--as if they sprang, fully formed, from the foreheads of their originators.  There is no hint of the hours of reasoning that lead to these results.  Even worse, as an artifact of progress, the original derivation, though correct, is often replaced with a sleeker, more efficient, derivation that turns out to be less instructive than its predecessor.  I want to talk more about this phenomenon--perhaps in the next blog post, but for now, I just want to point out how misguided this particular method is.  If you are going to derive something, then for heaven's sake, derive it!  Don't just invoke Baphomet, and then act as if you have actually explained anything worthwhile!



Anyway, it turns out that there is a really illuminating way to look at this situation and obtain the necessary physical insight for deriving this result.  Let's start with relativistic acceleration.  Again, for pedagogical purposes, it suffices to restrict ourselves to 1+1 dimensions.  Let's assume the canonical set up where B passes A moving at a relative velocity of v.  Suppose that B sees some object, say, a fly, moving with a velocity, $v'_f$, in some event, E.  Then to A, the fly will be moving with velocity,
\begin{equation}
v_f = \frac{v'_f + v}{1+\frac{v'_fv}{c^2}}
\end{equation}
in that same event.

I will not explain why $v_f$ takes this value in this post, though it is straightforward to derive from the Lorentz Transformation.

Now, let's change things up a little.  Let's assume that at time t' on B's clock, B is instantaneously at rest with the fly.  Now, suppose that B measures a force, F', to accelerate the fly at time t' on his clock.  Since B is at rest with the fly in this instant, then B does not measure the fly to be moving at relativistic speeds relative to himself, at least not at first.  In other words, during a small amount of time $\Delta t'$ after $t'$, B would measure the fly to be moving, but not at relativistic speeds. In fact, if $\Delta t'$ is small enough the fly's speed will be nearly 0 m/s.  Now, let's think about the principle of relativity:

The laws by which the states of physical systems undergo change are not affected, whether these changes of state be referred to the one or the other of two systems of coordinates in uniform translatory motion. OR: The laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference.

Keeping this in mind, let's ask the following question:  What if, instead, A were seeing this fly accelerate from rest, instead of B?  Then, we would reasonably assume that in this small interval of time, the fly should obey regular old Newtonian mechanics--more formally, as $\Delta t'$ approached 0, the laws of physics would approach Newtonian physics.  Namely, we would assume the fly had a mass, m, and that this force F', accelerated this fly in the time interval between $t'$ and $t'+\Delta t'$ by approximately $\frac{F'}{m}\Delta t'$

Well, by the First Principal of Relativity, B would have to measure this exact same scenario.  Now, we're in business!  So, let's see what this implies.  At time $t'$, B sees the fly at some position, $x'$, at rest.  Then, at time $t'+\Delta t'$, B sees the fly at position, $x'$, but moving with velocity, $\frac{F'}{m}\Delta t'$.  The following is a table relating how A and B measure things:

$\left(x',\> t'\right)$$v'_f$$(x,t)$$v_f$
$\left(x',\> t'\right)$$0 \mathrm{ m/s}$$\left((x'+vt')\gamma,\>(t'+\frac{x'v}{c^2})\gamma\right)$$v$
$\left(x',\> t'+\Delta t'\right)$$\frac{F'}{m}\Delta t'$$\left(\left(x'+v\left(t'+\Delta t'\right)\right)\gamma,\>\left(\left(t'+\Delta t'\right)+\frac{x'v}{c^2}\right)\gamma\right)$$\frac{\frac{F'}{m}\Delta t' + v}{1+\frac{\left(\frac{F'}{m}\Delta t'\right) v}{c^2}}$


Boy, that looks beautiful, doesn't it?  You just want to smear chocolate all over that table and rub it on your chest.  Oh yeah...

Oh, where was I?  Oh yes, this horrific table. Now, as much as I enjoy writing in LaTeX (having spent the last hour fighting with that stupid table), I am going to skip a few steps.  They are straightforward, and you should be able to do them yourself.  But, basically, we would find that where B sees the fly accelerate by $\frac{dv'}{dt'}=\frac{F'}{m}$, A sees the fly accelerate by $\frac{dv}{dt} = \frac{F'}{m}\gamma^{-3}$

We can rewrite this as
\begin{equation}
F'=m\frac{dv}{dt}\gamma^3
\end{equation}

Now, what are we to make of this?  Well, intuitively, if B sees the fly accelerate more from his frame, A will see it accelerate less, so we should expect that should somehow translate into the fly being "harder to push" when it is moving.  So, even though we have an expression for acceleration, we need some way to connect this to the actual force that A measures.  Personally, I don't think it is immediately clear how to do this.  The answer, however, lies, in finding a force that both A and B can agree on.

There are a number of ways to find such a force.  Perhaps the most obvious one (at least to me) is a uniform gravitational field, but this is immediately problematic--at least conceptually, because we know that, in a gravitational field, everything accelerates at the same rate.  In this example, we have found that the acceleration should differ.  Of course, we haven't actually found a contradiction.  Rather, all we have found is that, at least algebraically, the expressions for accelerations differ, but have not actually shown that the numerical values should be different.  This, of course, indicates that F', m, and $\gamma$ must take on appropriate values to preserve the acceleration, but, as you can see, things are already getting hairy, so it might help to clear things up by using a different force. [UPDATE: I can't believe that I just realized the error I made in this paragraph.  Everyone in a uniform gravitational field experiences the same acceleration, not the same force.  FAILURE!  Sorry about that.  You know, I am told that a while ago, an actual physics professor visited my blog and concluded that I don't know what I am talking about.  The above paragraph could be what induced him to arrive at this conclusion.  Oh well.]

And for that, we'll choose the good ol' Coloumb force.  Let's imagine for a moment that the fly is a dipteran Piotr Nikolaievitch Rasputin, and has used his mutant powers to turn completely metal, and that dipteran storm charged him with lightning.  Furthermore, suppose that everybody is situated between two enormous, charged, parallel, metal plates, orthogonal to $v$, which generate a uniform electric field, which serves as the force.  At the limit that the plates become infinitely large, not only is this field uniform, but it only depends on their charge and area.  As both A and B agree on these quantities, they would agree on the force between the plates.  Now, invoking the First Postulate of Relativity again, we immediately see that both A and B must agree that the force on the fly is the same.

Hence,
\begin{equation}
F = F' = m\frac{dv}{dt}\gamma^3
\end{equation}

So, what exactly is this telling us?  Well, basically, any time you push on a moving object with a force, F' in the moving frame, an equivalent push in the rest frame will result in a lower accelerations.  Consequently, it should take a stronger force to achieve that same acceleration in the rest frame.  So, it seems that we have arrived at the expression for force, as A measures it, on an accelerating object.

From here on in, things get relatively easy, so to speak (depending on how you look at things).  We have done most of the conceptual work with this thought experiment.  Now, let's invoke the handy First Postulate again to find momentum and energy.

In this case, since B would use $\frac{dp'}{dt'} = F'$, then A should use $\frac{dp}{dt}=F$.  Thus, integrating F, we find that $p=mv\gamma$.
Let's write v in terms of p because that will become useful in a moment:
\begin{equation}
v=\frac{p}{\sqrt{m^2 + \frac{p^2}{c^2}}}
\end{equation}

Likewise, we can calculate the kinetic energy

\begin{equation}
T=\int{F\mathrm{d}x}
\end{equation}

Noting that $F=\frac{dp}{dt}$, let's make this easier by changing the variables:

\begin{equation}
T=\int{\frac{dp}{dt}dx} = \int{\frac{dx}{dt}dp} = \int{v \ dp} = \int{\frac{p}{\sqrt{m^2 + \frac{p^2}{c^2}}} \ dp}
\end{equation}

Therefore,
\begin{equation}
T=c^2\sqrt{m^2 + \frac{p^2}{c^2}} = \sqrt{m^2c^4 + p^2c^2}
\end{equation}

And so, we have just derived equations (3) and (4), as we set out to do.

Wednesday, June 25, 2014

Introduction and An A Priori Derivation of the Minkowski Space Time Interval

Yes, I am GREAT SCIENTIST!

Ok, not really.  I am actually not a professional scientist at all (though I hope to be some day).  However, I thought I would start a blog to share my exploits in amateur research.  Indeed, I confess as I currently have no access to actual experimental equipment, my ideas are all of the gandenken experiment kind.  Thus, you will find no sigmas here, unless or until I actually enter a research program.  Sorry to disappoint you, but in actuality, the purpose of this blog is mostly to share interesting mathematical derivations and wild speculations, mostly related to whatever it is that I have decided to focus my fickle mind on at the moment.  Often, that's physics, but other times, you will encounter other topics ranging from number theory and abstract algebra, to proof theory.

My goal in writing this blog is to create a delicate balance between overly simplified arguments you will find in most blogs geared toward laymen and overly technical, jargon, laden arguments that you will find in a scientific paper.  In my experience, though it is often true that the devil is in the details, it is also frequently as true that much of the structure of the devil can be found in a straightforward manner by a competent non-expert once some fundamental details have been explained.  In short, most profound truths spring from a handful of key insights.  (I suspect, however, that there are some profound results that don't adhere to this principle.  The Four Color Theorem comes to mind). With this in mind, the purpose of this blog is not to introduce you to fundamental concepts, but, in an entirely self-indulgent way, to provide you, the reader, with navigational charts of territory I have covered, am currently covering, and will cover, though not all in order.  Now, on to the derivation...

The Minkowski Metric

Today, I will start with physics, specifically, Special Relativity, one of my favorite topics.  It is a beautiful theory, which serves as a rather startling example of how profound, foundation shaking, predictions can be derived from simple, though obscure, postulates.  It is also a theory that requires few to no measuring apparatuses to actually derive well-tested experimental predictions--that is to say, it is not a theory of the phenomenological kind.  This makes it ideal for an aspiring physicist, such as me, to use it as a springboard off of which to learn physics while in the transitional, awkward, period of trying to make enough money to go back to school and become a full-time crackpot--err researcher...yeah...that's what you heard me say...researcher...

This derivation developed out of something I consider a rather guilty pleasure: arguing with people online.  I won't get into details, but there is a well known commentator in the Physorg community that has a rather--shall we say--loose idea of physics.  Specifically, I would describe his brain as an empirical demonstration of Murphy's law, where if there is a well established principle that every competent person understands, his brain will find a way to misinterpret it.  But, I digress.  Over the course of arguing with this person, it became quite clear that he was unable to resolve the notion that two observers could measure a physical result differently without crashing all of physics like it was pretend 23:59:59, 12/31/1999 in his mind--even though we do it all the time in regular old Newtonian mechanics when we change coordinate systems.  Understandably, the addition of conflicting temporal measurements does introduce some conceptual difficulties, but the wonderful thing about SR is that we've had 100+ years to develop all kinds of pedagogical strategies for carefully guiding the physics neophyte through the difficult waters of simultaneity.  Anyway, it occurred to me that it might help to develop less ambiguous description of space-time points, which served as triggers for his mind to jump to completely incorrect conclusions.  This lead me to asking if there was a way to uniquely identify a space-time point independent of, say velocity.

In other words, I asked, is there a way to assign a unique coordinate to a spatial point that didn't move to anyone?  Obviously, the inverse Lorentz Transform would not satisfy this, for everyone, except the person in the rest frame.

Mathematically, we would want to find a function, F, such that

\begin{equation}
F(r,t) = F(L_r(r,t),L_t(r,t))
\end{equation}

where r is the spatial position, t is the temporal coordinate, Lr is the Lorentz transform of the spatial position, and Lt is the Lorentz transform of the temporal coordinate.  In English, F of  (r, t) is the same applied to (r', t'), where (r', t') is the transformed coordinate.

This kind of equation, where two sides of the equation involve F applied to different arguments, is known as a functional equation.  Functional equations hold a special place in my heart for a number of reasons I will not get into, at least not now.  They are also notoriously difficult to solve.

Now, one general strategy (if not the general strategy short of guessing) for solving awful equations is to try to convert them to more familiar equations that have already been solved.  In this case, I wondered what the differential properties of this equation would be.  It turns out that this equation is ideal for asking that kind of question.  To see this, it suffices to solve only the 1+1 dimensional version of this equation.

In this case, we have
\begin{equation}
F(x,t) =F((x-vt)\gamma,(t-\frac{xv}{c^2})\gamma)
\end{equation}

Now, it's a well known fact that as v approaches 0, the Lorentz factor approaches 1.  Hence, we can choose v to set the Lorentz transformed point arbitrarily close to the original.  This seems to be what we are looking for.
In particular, let's replace v with a differential.  Let's call it dv.

Now, we have
\begin{equation}
F(x,t) =F((x-dvt)\gamma,(t-\frac{xdv}{c^2})\gamma)
\end{equation}

Using the chain rule, and straightforward, but tedious algebra, we can now turn this into a partial differential equation:
\begin{equation}
F(x,t) =F(x,t) - \frac{\partial F}{\partial x}(x,t)t\mathrm{d}v - \frac{\partial F}{\partial t}(x,t)\frac{x}{c^2}\mathrm{d}v
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}
\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}(x,t)t =  -\frac{\partial F}{\partial t}(x,t)x/c^2
\end{equation}

One thing that is immediately clear, if you know a little vector calculus, is that this is saying that
\begin{equation}
\nabla F \cdot \begin{pmatrix} t \\ \frac{x}{c^2} \end{pmatrix} = 0
\end{equation}

However, I won't use this.  Instead, I will find curvilinear coordinates that can be used to separate the variables.  In particular, I will find a parametrized family of curves such that F is constant along each curve.  If I can find this family, I will have solved the equation.  Specifically, we start with F(x,y) and completely differentiate it to get

\begin{equation}
dF(x,t) = \frac{\partial F}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial F}{\partial t}dt
\end{equation}

and set dF(x,t) to 0 so that
\begin{equation}
\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial F}{\partial t}dt = 0
\end{equation}

Plugging (5) into (8), we see that
\begin{equation}
-\frac{\partial F}{\partial t}\frac{x}{tc^2}dx + \frac{\partial F}{\partial t}dt = 0
\end{equation}

So,
\begin{equation}
xdx = c^2tdt
\end{equation}

Integrating both sides,
\begin{equation}
x^2 = c^2t^2
\end{equation}

Look familiar?  We're not quite done yet, though.  What we have found is that F must be constant along the curve defined by x2 - (ct)2 = 0 .

In fact, I lied.  That's not the only solution from integrating both sides.  The general solution is
\begin{equation}
x^2 = c^2t^2 + k^2
\end{equation}

where k is an arbitrary constant.  Thus, we have found our family of parametrized curves, k being the parameter.  F would be constant along each of these.

Indeed,
\begin{equation}
F(x,t) = F(\sqrt{x^2 - c^2t^2},0 \ \mathrm{s})
\end{equation}

It follows that if we define an arbitrary function, H, such that
Indeed,
\begin{equation}
F(\sqrt{x^2 - c^2t^2},0 \ \mathrm{s}) = H(\sqrt{x^2 - c^2t^2})
\end{equation}

Then, the general solution of (1) is
\begin{equation}
F(x,t) = H(\sqrt{x^2 - c^2t^2})
\end{equation}

--That is assuming that F is differentiable.  Obviously, one function that satisfies this equation is then the Minkowski metric.  Thus, not only have we inadvertently derived the Minkowski metric in 1+1 dimensions, but we have found that every single possible differential function must also essentially be the Minkowski metric, too.

Conclusions

There are some interesting things to note here.  First, I seem to have shown that the answer to my initial question is negative.  We cannot uniquely identify a spatial point without, essentially, fixing our origin on something physical that moves.  We must either make ourselves the origin of the universe, or concede that origin to someone else who is not at rest with us.  You'll notice, also, that I did not do a higher dimensional derivation, for the simple fact that I actually haven't yet.  Based on the method outlined above, it seems like we might be able to get away with deriving results far more interesting than that which I obtained for 1+1 dimensions.  In particular, at least naively, it doesn't seem like there isn't any good reason why we couldn't construct a function that is vector valued, and not just complex valued.  Finally, I wonder if we can extend this method to solving a larger class of functional equations.  Anyway, that's all for now.  Signing off.

[Update:
Some things have been brought to my attention.  First, this probably should read Minkowski Space-Time Interval, not metric.  Second, I didn't actually derive this interval for every single pair of points, but only for pairs of points where one is the origin.  However, I am almost certain a similar argument can be made for those space-time intervals too.  If and when I get around to it, I will post the full argument.  Mea culpa.  I am sure the frequency of me saying that will increase as the number of people who know better than I do who read this blog increases.  Much appreciation to the guy who pointed these things out.  I am not sure if he wishes to be named.]